Past Paper of FCPS Part 1 Medicine October 2008

MEDICINE Oct 2008

In type 4 Hypersensitivity mainly cells are

 

  1. T cells+macrophages
  2. B cells+macrophages
  3. IGE+T cells
  4. B+T cells
  5. None.

 

2: Malignant tertian malaria caused by

 

  1. P.falciparum
  2. P.malariae
  3. P.knowlasea
  4. P.ovale
  5. P.vivax

 

 

3: In duodenal perforation the artery involves.

 

  1. Gastro duodenal artery
  2. Lt.Gastric Artery
  3. Splenic Artery
  4. Rt. Gastric Artery

 

4: Parasite transmission e no feco-oral route

  1. Enthistolytica
  2. E.Vernicularis
  3. Teniasolium

 

5: Antimalarial drug e can be used other than malaria

  1. Arthemether
  2. Basoquine
  3. Choroquine
  4. Mefloquine
  5. Quinine

 

 

6: About RT adrenal gland choose correct

  1. Has same size in adults & infants
  2. Has 3 arterial supply
  3. Pyramidal in shape
  4. Separate form kidney by perinephric fat

 

7: Typhoid fever

  1. All pts becomes carrier
  2. Roth spots on 7th day
  3. Organism is B-hemolytic, non_lactose

 

8: Melanocytes derived from

  1. Endoderm
  2. Ectoderm
  3. Neural crest cells
  4. Pharyngeal arch
  5. Lateral plate

 

9: Most of drugs are metabolize in

  1. Heart
  2. Liver
  3. Kidney
  4. Lungs

 

.10: ½ life of a drug

Options not remember

 

11: Premalignant condition

  1. Cervical erosion
  2. Myeloprolefrative

 

 

12: In Cushing decrease amount of

  1. Neutrophils
  2. Lymphocytes
  3. Basophiles
  4. Monocytes

 

13: Babinski sign -ve in

  1. UMNL
  2. Sleep
  3. New born
  4. LMNL

 

14: Loss of accommodation reflex due to occulumotor nerve site of lesion

  1. Pons
  2. Medulla
  3. Midbrain

?

 

15: Aspiration of gastric contents go in the

  1. Rt lower lobe of lungs

 

 

16: Comatose patient are more prone to regurgitation

  1. Stomach full
  2. Rt lateral position
  3. Lt lateral position

 

17: Vein that doesn’t directly drain in the inferior vena cava

  1. Hepatic vein
  2. Lumber vein

 

18: Rt kidney doesn’t relate to

  1. Liver
  2. Ascending colon
  3. Ribs
  4. Descending colon

 

19: Fever, headache Mydriasis associated with no option of meningitis

Options not remember

 

20: An I/v urograph of old boy shows Excretion of dye normal at Rt side but absence of shadow of Lt kidney instead there is a small shadow above the bladder on Lt side Most likely

  1. Crossed ectopic kidney
  2. Unilateral agenesis

iii. Non rotating kidney

  1. Pelvis kidney
  2. Horse shoe kidney

 

21: Drug with inhibit COX-1 as well as COX-2

  1. Diclofenic
  2. Naproxen
  3. Aspirin

 

22: Rx of salicylate poisoning which can increase the excretion of salicylate

  1. I/v NAHCO3
  2. Dehydration state
  3. Diuretics
  4. 10% D/W

 

23: organ having subcapsularis& receives afferents

  1. Palatine tonsils
  2. Lingual tonsils
  3. Thymus
  4. Lymph node
  5. Spleen

 

24: End arteries are in

  1. Spleen
  2. Brain
  3. Kidney
  4. Lungs
  5. Heart

 

25: Fat stores in body

  1. Glucagonslipogenic
  2. Insulin lipolysis
  3. Body fat <5 g/dl
  4. Epinephrine has lipolytic effect

 

26: IDDM main disturbance by causing

  1. Resistance to insulin
  2. Receptors destruction
  3. Increase ketogenesis by liver

 

27: Thirst increase due to

  1. ADH
  2. Aldosterone
  3. Eryropoietin
  4. Angiotensin 2

 

28: Sound of mitral valve is best heart at

Left 5th I.C space in midclavicular line

 

29: AV valve closure is responsible to

  1. 1st heart sound
  2. 2nd heart sound
  3. 3rd heart sound
  4. 4th heart sound
  5. None of the above

 

30: During cardiac cycle ventricles are filled in

  1. Atrial systole
  2. Rapid ejection
  3. Isovolumetric relaxation
  4. Rapid inflow

 

31: In neurogenic stock

  1. Loss of vasomotor tone
  2. Decrease C.O
  3. Increase C.O

 

32: In Hemorrhage after compensation with one of the following decrease

  1. Venous Compliance
  2. H.R
  3. Cardiac output

 

33: CCF pt developed tachycardia best management of RX

OPTIONS NOT REMEMBER

 

34: Site of SA node

  1. Lower part of Crista Terminals of R.A
  2. RT auricle
  3. Sulcus terminalis
  4. Upper part of Crista Terminals of R.A

 

35: Which one is essential Fatty Acid

  1. Palmitic acid
  2. Len oleic
  3. Saturated F.A

 

36: Boy having edema due to renal

  1. Decrease plasma colloid osmotic pressure
  2. Due to decrease interstitial fluid osmotic pressure
  3. Decrease capillary pressure

 

37: Histamine theophyline& Aminophylline have same action

  1. To increase the gastric acid secretion

 

 

38: I/v large amount of DEXTROX will inhibit

  1. CORTISOL
  2. ADH

INSULIN

  1. THYROID
  2. OXYTOCIN

 

39: Which 1 of the following is aggressive in nature?

  1. Small cell carcinoma
  2. Squamous cell carcinoma
  3. Basal cell carcinoma
  4. Nevis cell

 

40: CHEMOTAXIS is a feature of

  1. CH.inflammation
  2. AC.inflammtion

 

41: X-linked disorder

  1. Marfan syndrome
  2. Glycogen storage disease
  3. Duchene muscular dystrophy
  4. Cystic fibrosis

 

 

42: In factor 8 deficiency specific test is

  1. PT
  2. APTT
  3. Plat.count
  4. Thrombin time
  5. Fibrin products

 

43: Vomiting centre located in

  1. Pons
  2. Medulla
  3. Midbrain
  4. Cerebellum

 

44: Arousal is controlled by

  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Pituat.gland
  3. Reticular Formation

 

45: Arterial supply of spinal cord

  1. Vertebral artery
  2. Ant. Choroidal artery
  3. Post. Choroidal artery

 

46: Mast cells r released 4om

  1. Esinophils
  2. Basophiles
  3. Neutrophils
  4. Lymphocytes

 

47: Regarding Glomerulotubular balance. Choose correct 1.

OPTIONS NOT REMEMBER

 

48: Regarding parathyroid gland.

  1. Located anterolateral 2 thyroid gland
  2. Covered by pretracheal fascia
  3. Supplied by sup. Thyroid artery
  4. Derived 4om 1st pharyngeal arch

 

49: Radiosensitive tumor

  1. Bone
  2. Lymph node
  3. Muscle
  4. Cartilage

 

50: Rh incompatibility related 2

Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction

Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction

Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction

Type 4hypersensitivity reaction

None of the above

 

51: Regarding IGG2 cells

OPTIONS NOT REMEMBER

 

52: Regarding Th-2 cells

OPTIONS NOT REMEMBER

 

53: Hypovolumic shock

  1. Hot peripheries
  2. Inc. C.O
  3. Inc. H.R
  4. Inc. Urine O.P
  5. Dec. H.R

 

54: Regarding Microscopic feature of CASEOUS Necrosis

OPTINS NOT REMEMBER

 

55: Female pt. on oral contraceptive & u want to give her oral anticoagulant u must chk

  1. PT
  2. APTT
  3. PT &aPTT
  4. Thrombin
  5. Fibrin products

 

56: Pt. came after 1 day of RTA with c/o unable of standup after seated position. Probably muscle injury.

  1. G.Maximus
  2. G.Minimus
  3. Sartorius
  4. Gracilis
  5. Q. Femorus

 

57:Pt. feel tingling sensation on rt. Thumb during c-setion after giving epidural anesthesia. its due to.

  1. C4
  2. C5
  3. C6
  4. C7
  5. C8

 

58:Diagnosed pt. of sciatica cam in o.p.d with c/o loss of sensation of RT. Little toe with difficulty in eversion of Rt. Foot. Injury to

  1. L3
  2. L4
  3. L5
  4. S1
  5. S2

 

59: Below the medial epicondyle of humerus passes

  1. Median nerve
  2. Radial nerve
  3. Ulnar nerve
  4. Long thoracic nerve
  5. Musculocutaneous nerve

 

60: Intermittent Diplopia is a classical sign of

  1. Mys. Gravis
  2. Inc. I.C.P
  3. Horner syndrome

 

61: Pt. expire due to sudden inc.B.P.Autopsy shows thinning of tunica media.COZ OF DEATH

  1. Berry aneurysm
  2. Dissecting aneurysm
  3. Marfan aneurysm
  4. Temporal arteritis

 

62: Artery enters in cranium & becomes the principle artery of brain

  1. Common Carotid
  2. External Carotid
  3. Internal Carotid
  4. Maxillary Artery
  5. Temporal

 

63: 1 of the following is not epileptogenic

  1. flouxitin
  2. Amitriptyline
  3. Imipramine

 

64: Opoid Toxicity causes

  1. Nausea & vomiting
  2. Psychosis
  3. Pin point pupil
  4. Resp. depression

 

65: 1 of the following is not classified as non barbiturate hypnotic

  1. Bromide
  2. Choral hydrate
  3. Triazolam
  4. Chlormethimazole

 

66: In CARDIOGENIC SHOCK

  1. Adrenaline
  2. Dopamine &Dobutamine
  3. I/V NaHCO3
  4. 10% D/W

 

67: Coz of FATAL DIARRHEA

  1. V.Cholrea
  2. C.Botilinium
  3. E.Coli

 

68: Anemia of CRF is best treated with

  1. Dialysis
  2. Blood transfusion
  3. Folic Acid
  4. Iron
  5. E-poi tin

 

69: Pellagra is due to def. of

  1. NIACIN

BIOTIN

  1. Vita. C
  2. Vita. B6
  3. Folic acid

 

70: Site of constriction of esophagus. Chose correct one

  1. Cricopharangeus
  2. Left Bronchus crosses it
  3. When enters in diaphragm
  4. At cardiac end

 

71: Single cranial nerve which doesn’t contain parasympathetic fibers

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 7
  5. 9

 

72: Tactile two point discrimination by

  1. Pacinian
  2. Ruffini
  3. Free nerve endings
  4. Merkel disc

 

73: Patient with resting tremors, rigidity, hypokinesia

  1. Cerebellum
  2. Parkinson disease
  3. UMNL
  4. LMNL

 

74: Motor aphasia due to lesion of

  1. Wernicke’s area
  2. Prefrontal gyrus
  3. Sup. Temporal gyrus
  4. Brocas area

 

75: Regarding lumber puncture which one is correct

  1. Between L4 & L5
  2. CSF pressure in mm of Hg
  3. Spine fully extended
  4. Angle of needle must be 45 degree
  5. Advice to patient stands up immediately after L.P

 

76:Heat loose of body is controlled by

  1. Lat. Hypothalamus
  2. Preoptic hypothalamus (NO OPTION OF ANT. HYPOTHALAMUS)
  3. Post. Hypothalamus
  4. Thalamus
  5. Hippocampus

 

77: Damage to dorsal column tract causes ipsilateral loose of

  1. Pain
  2. Fine touch
  3. Temperature
  4. Vibration

 

78: The first step occurs when light falls on retina

  1. 11-Cisretinal to all Trans retinal

 

79: Lesion of mamillary body causes

  1. Fear & rage
  2. Hyper sexuality
  3. Loose of Recent memory
  4. Hyperphagia

 

80: Regarding facial nerve which one is correct?

  1. Purely sensory
  2. Give chorda tympani to posterior 1/3 of tongue
  3. Supplies to middle ear
  4. Supplies to stapedius muscle

 

81: CSF having proteins 400 mg/dl, glucose 40 & mainly lymphocytes. Diagnosis

  1. Encephalitis
  2. Cryptococcus virus
  3. TBM
  4. Bacterial meningitis
  5. Viral meningitis

 

82: Lateral sulcus of cerebellum

  1. Insula
  2. Occipital lob

 

83: PH-7.54, O2-55 & CO2-25 cause of deranged ABG’S

  1. Carbon mono oxide poisoning
  2. Hysterical hypoventilation
  3. Salicylate poisoning

 

83: Asthma diagnosed by

  1. I.R.V
  2. R.V
  3. T.L.C
  4. FEV
  5. Tidal volume

 

84: Diagnosis of Emphysema

  1. Physiological dead space
  2. Physiological shunt
  3. V/Q- affinity
  4. V/Q-0
  5. V/Q-1

 

85: Muscle of quite inspiration

  1. Diaphragm
  2. Intercostals muscle
  3. Sternocladomastoid
  4. Scalenius posterior

 

86: Muscle of forceful inspiration

  1. External intercostals muscle

 

87: Regarding hemoglobin

  1. Adult contains alpha-2 & gama-2
  2. Contains iron in ferric form
  3. Causes acidosis when add with H+

 

88: Receptors mediates increase heat rate

  1. Alpha-1
  2. Alpha-2
  3. Beta-1
  4. Beta-2
  5. Nicotinic

 

89: Stress hormone of body called

  1. ACTH
  2. Epinephrine

NO OPTIONS OF CORTISOL

 

90: Heart muscle works as syncytium because of

  1. Sarcomere
  2. SER
  3. Gap junction
  4. Tight junction
  5. Intercalated disk

 

91: Preload depends on

  1. EDV of L.V pressure
  2. EDV of R.A pressure

 

92: Diagnosed case of thyrotoxicosis came to you with heart rate of 190b/mn. Best treatment is

  1. Digoxin
  2. Lidocain
  3. Verapamil
  4. Propanalol

 

93: Saw tooth P waves in ECG associated with

  1. Atrial flutter
  2. A.V block

 

94: Captoprill (M.O.A)

Blocks ACE enzyme

 

95: Cyanosis due to

  1. Anemia hypoxia
  2. When deoxihaemoglobin is more then 5g/dl

 

96: Pulmonary vasculature resistance increase in

  1. High altitude

 

97: 1/3 of total body water contains

  1. E.C.F
  2. I.C.F
  3. Plasma
  4. Interstitial

 

98: GFR can be calculated by

  1. 24 hours urinary out put
  2. S.creatinine
  3. B.U.N
  4. Urea

 

99: S/Chloride maintained by kidney through

  1. Na+-K+-2Cl co transportation in thick ascending L.O.H
  2. Na+ -K+ – 2Cl co transportation in thin ascending L.O.H

 

100: INC. Aldosterone causes commonly

  1. Acidosis
  2. DEC. Rennin
  3. Sodium depletion
  4. K+ retention

 

 

101: M.O.A spironolactone

OPTIONS NOT REMEMBER

 

102: A.D.H is inhibited by

  1. Alcohol
  2. Hemorrhagic Shock
  3. Pain
  4. Exercise

 

103: Erythropoietin secreted from

  1. Peritubular cells
  2. Juxtaglomerular cells
  3. Macula densa

 

 

104: Hormone which causes relaxation of all G.I.T muscles

  1. G.I.P
  2. Gastrin
  3. Secretin
  4. CCK
  5. V.I.P

 

 

 

105: Which causes diarrhea when it reaches to large colon?

  1. Glucose
  2. Fructose
  3. Lactose
  4. Sucrose
  5. Maltose

 

 

 

106: Pt. with puffy eyes &edema with dec. TSH & when TRH given TSH slightly rises.coz of disturbance is

  1. Primary Hypothyroidism due to Hypothalamus

 

 

 

107: Neurphyposis contains

  1. Cholinergic
  2. Adrenergic
  3. Secretory cells
  4. Puituicytes

 

 

108: In autoimmune diseases of thyroid antibodies against

  1. TSH
  2. Thyroglobulin
  3. Follicular cells
  4. C cells

 

109: Amniocentesis shows 47XXY

  1. Turner syndrome
  2. Adrenogenital syndrome
  3. Klinefelter syndrome

 

110: In pregnancy cause of Hyper Parathyriodism

  1. Prim. Hypoparathyroidism
  2. Becozestrogen causes inhibition of bone resorption

 

111: Estrogen doesn’t have action

  1. Delayed bone loss after menopause
  2. Follicular growth
  3. Inc. serum Cholesterol

D.

 

 

112: HLA DR 27 associated with

  1. Ankylosingspondilytis
  2. Reiters Syndrome
  3. R.A
  4. S.L.E

 

113: Tumor marker of Thyroid carcinoma is

  1. C.E.A
  2. Calcitonin
  3. Alpha fetoprotein
  4. Beta H.C.G

 

114: Which hormone maintains body temperature by oxidative phosphorylation

  1. Adrenal
  2. Nor adrenaline
  3. Cortisol
  4. Thyroid gland

 

 

115: Hydrocele is the aculummation of fluid

  1. Gubernaculums Testis
  2. Scortal ligament
  3. Tunica vaginalis
  4. Vas deferens
  5. Epidydimis

 

116: After gastrectomy pt. came with c/o

  1. Iron def. anemia
  2. Megaloblasticanemia due to folate
  3. Pernicious anemia.

 

117: Old age Pt. came with jaundice Hb-10g/dl,S,Bili-2.8mg/dl,Retic 10%.U/S abdomen normal.whats Ur diagnosis.

  1. Acute Hepatitis
  2. Rotor syndrome
  3. Dubin Johnson Syndrome
  4. Gilbert Syndrome
  5. Hepatitis B

 

118: IN Tumor immunity liver has a function of

  1. To detoxify the toxic substances
  2. Protein synthesis
  3. Globulin Synthesis

 

119: Cholangio-Carcinoma caused by

  1. Clonorchis –Sinesis
  2. S.Hematobonium
  3. S.Japanicum
  4. EchunococcusGranuloses

 

120: Old age pt. Diagnosed as a case of OBSTRUCTIVE JAUNDICE & now cam With c/o bleeding tendency. Which 1 of the following cause.

  1. Due to bile stones
  2. Defi. Of VIT.K due to DEC. absorption from gut

C.

D.

E.

 

121: C.E.A is a tumor marker of

  1. Breast
  2. Colorectal Carcinoma
  3. Testis
  4. Thyroid

 

122: Juvenile Polyps are

  1. Meckelsdiverticulum’s
  2. Hyperplasic polyps
  3. Hereditary non polpyposis
  4. Colonic adenocarcinoma

 

 

123: Granuloma formation is not associated with

  1. Sarcoidosis
  2. T.B
  3. Pneumococcal Pneumonia

 

124: Pt. came with distortion of nose, lymph nodes palpable, AFB +ve.whats Ur diagnosis

  1. T.B
  2. Sarcoidosis
  3. Leprosy
  4. None of the above

 

125: Which 1 of is not a Tumor marker

  1. Alpha 1 antitrypsin
  2. Vesmin
  3. Desmin

 

126: Which 1 of the following is the diff. b/w malignant & benign tumor

  1. Metastasis

 

127: Workers Having Increase chances 2 develop Malignancy

  1. Tobacco
  2. Coal
  3. Asbestos worker

 

 

128: H.I.V pts. Have tendency to get infection of

  1. E.B.V
  2. H.P.V
  3. H.S.P
  4. Pneumocystitiscarnii
  5. Chicken Pox

 

129: Diagnosis of H.I.V when

  1. Less CD4 cells count
  2. Less CD8 cells count

 

130: Joint pain, Xerostomia, conjunctivitis sicca, associated with

  1. Sjogran Syndrome
  2. Scleroderma

 

131: Which 1 of the following is not associated with Dry gangrene?

  1. D.M
  2. Throboembolism
  3. Bacterial Endocarditis

 

132: Platelets aggregation is due 2

  1. Thromboxane A2
  2. Prostaglandins
  3. Cox 1

Cox 2

 

133: Which 1 of the following factor causes Delayed wound healing

Inc. Blood flow

Vit. C Deficiency

Vit. E deficiency

 

134: Diagnosed case of tuberculosis PPD or Tuberculin test found to be negative

Because of one of the following factor

  1. A.T.T
  2. Immunosuppressive
  3. Steroid intake

 

135: Blood group having no antigen to A & B

A+

B+

AB+

O-

O+

 

136: About leukocyte adhesion factor responsible

Integrin

Selectin

 

138: In humans the End product of PURINE metabolism is

  1. Xanthin
  2. Urea
  3. Uric Acid
  4. Lactic Acid
  5. Pyruvate









Please follow and like us:
0

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *