Mock Test for August Online Exam of FCPS Part 1 Dentistry

As in previous articles we have talked about Mock Tests, Mock tests are test for Candidates who are preparing for upcoming exam of FCPS Part 1 Dentistry. We have arranged this test specifically for the candidates who are appearing in August Online Exam of 2015. All these MCQs are compiled by Dr Maryam Malik. Hopefully it will help you for upcoming Exam.

Q1 the extrapyramidal system is not concerned with
A) stretch reflex
B) righting reflex
C) spasticity
D)sensation of viscera

Q2 epiphyseal closure is regulated by
A) calcitonin
B) somatomedians
C) 1,25 dihydroxycholecalceferol
D) thyroxine

Mock

Q3 .A drug abuser of Heroin is presented with
Hypertension,What is appropriate.
a.His Serum TSH levels are normal to decreased.
b.His serum TSH levels are normal to increased
c.His serum T3 levels are decreased
d.His serum T3 levels are increased
e.He is clinically Euthyroid

Q4 :A 7 years old girl is noticed by her mother for a palpable
lesions on her Buttocks that does not blanch when pressure
is applied, along with pain in both knees and small joints of
hands. She had an episode of Sore throat 1 week
earlier.What could be the Cause.
a.A sequelae of staphylococcal Infection. b.Infective
arthritis c.Churg-Strauss Syndrome d.Reiters Syndrome
E.Henoch Schonlein Purpura.

Q5: Bithermal antibodies are found in which of the following
conditions
a.Immune hemolytic anemia b.Paroxsymal nocturnal
hemoglobinuria
c.Heriditary Eilptocytosis d.Sickle cell disease.
e.Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria

Q6: A patient of epilepsy is using Phenytoin for the last 1  year,His Blood complete picture shows Megaloblastic anemia.it is due to.fact that.
a.it decreases the vit B 12 stores in body.
B.it increases the osmotic volume of RBCs.
C.it increases the folic acid consumption in the body.
d.it inhibits the intestinal Conjugase
e.it increases the activity of luminal Conjugases

Q7 Sympathomimetic drugs are useful in the therapy of all of the following conditions except?

  1. Acute decompensated heart failure
  2. Hypotension
  3. Hypertension
  4. Erectile dysfunction

Q8: A highly ionized drug :

  1. Is excreted mainly by the kidneys
  2. Corsses the placental barrier easily
  3. Is well absorbed from the intestine
  4. Is highly protein bound

Q9: A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is:

  1. Hepatitis B virus
  2. Hepatitis C virus
  3. Hepatitis E virus
  4. Hepatitis A virus

Q10: The most significant adverse effect of ACE inhibition is:

  1. a) Hypotension
  2. b) Hypertension
  3. c) Hypocalcemia
  4. d) Hypercalcemia

 

Q11:  One of the following is a prodrug

  1. a) Enalapril
  2. b) Neostigmine
  3. c) Esmolol
  4. d) Captopril

Q12: Which of the following is a benzodiazepine antagonist

  1. a) Flumazenil
  2. b) Butorphanol
  3. c) Naltrexone
  4. d) Pralidoxime

Q13: Which antibiotic acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis

  1. a) Cefepime
  2. b) Lomefloxacin
  3. C) Erythromycin
  4. d) Tetracycline

Q14: SUBSTANCES THAT DO NOT CROSS THE PLACENTAL MEMBRANE ARE A/E :
A : IgG
B : IgA
C : IgM
D : IgE

Q.15 : Double barr body is seen in :

A : Turners
B : Klinefelters
C : XXX
D : Downs

Q.16 : Which of the following disappear in umbilical cord:

A : Left art.
B : Left vein
C : Right art.
D : Rt. vein

Q.17 : Implantation occurs at the stage of :

A : Zygote
B : Morula
C : Blastocyst
D : Primary villi

Q.18 : A midline cleft lip is due to failure of fusion of:

A : Maxillary processes
B : Medial nasal processes
C : Medial & lateral nasal process
D : Medial nasal & maxillary process

Q.19 : which of the following is a feature of Y chromosome?

A : Acrocentric
B : Telocentric
C : Submetacentric
D :Metacentric

Q.20 : All of the foll. are pneumatic bones Except :

A : Maxilla
B : Parietal
C : Ethmoid
D : Mastoid

Q21 all related to CCOP, except??

a.thromboembolism
b.coronary disease
c.stroke
d.demetia in old women
e.endomatrial ca

q22: common site of fertilization?
a.ovaries
b.isthmus
c.ampulla
d.cervix

Q23 .features of normal change in pregnancy.. except

a.inc GFR
b.inc plasma volume
c.inc RBC mass
d.inc thyroxin
e.res acidosis




q 24: Which cranial nerves carry parasympathetic fibers?

Option (a) :Third, Fourth, Ninth, Tenth
Option (b) :Third, Fourth, Fifth, Ninth
Option (c) :Second, Fourth, Fifth, Ninth
Option (d) :Third, Seventh, Ninth, Tenth
Option (e) :Fifth, Sixth, Tenth, Eleventh

Q 25: Which of the following is characteristic of polycystic ovary disease:
Option (a) :Increased L.H
Option (b) :Increased F.S.H
Option (c) :Decreased L.H
Option (d) :Decreased F.S.H
Option (e) :No change in hormones

Q26: A 20 – Week pregnant lady has blood pressure 140/95. She complains of vomiting & headache. What is the probable diagnosis of the condition?
Option (a) :Appendicitis
Option (b) :Pregnancy induced hypertension
Option (c) :Oligohydramnios
Option (d) :Raised intracranialpressure
Option (e) :Pregnancy induced DM

Q27: Parasympathetic stimulation caused:

  1. Bronchodilation
  2. Decreased gut motiilty
  3. Opens intestinal sphincters
  4. Constipation
  5. Tachycardia

Q28: Which of the following is the site of fusion of binocular vision?

  1. Optic chiasma
  2. Lateral geniculate bodies
  3. Retina
  4. Visual cortex
  5. Optic nerve

Q29: A newborn baby with hydrocephalus has a swelling in lumbosacral spinal region, which contains neural tissue in it. What could be the probable diagnosis of this patient?

  1. Spina bifida
  2. Meningocele
  3. Meningomyelocele
  4. Meningoencephalocele
  5. Meningohydroencephalocele

Q30:Which of the following is most strong antioxidant?

  1. Glutathone
  2. Vitamin – E
  3. Vitamin – C
  4. Ceruloplasmin
  5. Catalase

Q31: Most early diagnosis of Vitamin-A deficiency is:

(a) Bilot spots in cornea
(b) Night blindness
(c) Keratomalacia
(d) Chielosis
(e) Hyperkeratosis

Q32: Slow growing Thyroid Tumor?

A:Papillary Carcinoma
B. Follicular Carcinoma
C.Medullary Carcinoma
D. Anaplastic Carcinoma

Q33:Which of the following is the most poorly developed cusp in
maxillary second molar?
a) Mesiobuccal
b) Mesiolingual
c) Distobuccal
d) Distolingual
e) Cusp of carabelli

 

Q34:correct regarding parathyroid
a. sup. parathyroid gland is supplied via superior thyroid artery
b. inf parathyroid gland is supplied bia superior thyroid artery
c. thymus develops with superior parathyroid gland
d. thymus develops with inferior parathyroid gland
e. A and D

Q35: Common carotid artery divides at the level of?
a Thyroid gland
b Thyroid cartilage lower border
c Thyroid cartilage upper border
D Not divide

Q36: hypertrophy is most prominently seen in
A. Smooth muscle
B.skeletal Muscle
c both a + b
D. Cardiac muscle

Q37:All of the following may be associated with beta 2 agonist treatment except?

  1. Hyperkalemia
  2. Hyperglycemia
  3. Detrusor relaxation
  4. Relaxation of gut and bronchial muscles

 

Q38: A pt. with deep carious lesion on x ray with intact pulp, choice of restorative material is ?
A-Restorative material with good base
B-A coat of varnish with amalgam
C-GIC cement
D-Zinc oxide eugenol cement

Q39: Most Common cause of Thyrotoxicosis
A} Graves disease
B} Solitary nodule
C} Toxic nodular goiter
D} Diffuse goiter

Q40)  Which of the following is involved in maintaining RESTING MEMBRANE POTENTIAL?
A} Outward Potassium current
B} Outward Sodium current
C} Inward Sodium current
D} Inward Chlorine current
E} Sodium/potassium ATPase Pump

Q41)  Heart sound produced by rapid ventricular filling is
A} 1st heart sound
B} 2nd heart sound
C} 3rd heart sound
D} 4th heart sound
E} 5th heart sound

Q42: A night time which hormone has high levels?
1-thyroxin
2-ADH
3-cortisol
4-GH

Q43:Neural crest derivatives are All Except :
A : Melanocytes
B : Schwann cells
C : Thyroid follicular cells
D : Parafollicular C cells

Q(44)Early sign of calcium deficiency is
1-tetany
2-osteoporosis
3-yellowing of teeth
4-problems with blood clotting

Q45:A Commonest site of ectopic salivary gland
b Cheeks
c Palate
d Pharynx
e Tongue

Q(46):Alkaline phosphatase levels are raised in

1-bone diseases
2-liver diseases
3-blood disorders ,e.g,Polycythemia vera
4-All of the above

Q47)Thick filament are composed of?
1-Tropomyosin
2-actin
3-troponin
4-myosin

Q48:Collagen present in dermis is
a.type1
b.type2
c.type3

Q49: Fibrocartilge is present in
a.TMJ
b.Symphasis menti
c.Ball and socket joint

Q50.Lesion of chorda tympani causes

A:Loss of sensation on posterior 1/3rd of tongue
B:Loss of sensation on anterior 2/3rd of tongue
C.Loss of gag reflex

Q51.Phrenic nerve lies in relation to muscle
a.Sclaneus anterior muscle
b.Sclaneus medial muscle
c.Sclaneus posterior muscle

Q52:Ideal dental stone for models is
1-Type I
2-Type II
3-Type III
4-Type IV
5-Type V

Q(53)Zinc is added to amalgam alloys because it makes the amalgam more
1-Brittle
2-Plastic
3-Hard and Strengthened
4-Quick setting

Q(54)A pt.has been using a cast partial denture made up from Base-Metal alloys, but gradually it got corroded,this corrosion is due to lack/relative lack of which metal?
1-Chromium
2-Cobalt
3-Platinum
4-Molybdenum

(55) young’s modulus defines which of the following?
1-Elastic limit
2-Stiffness
3-Resilience
4-Flexibility

Q56: pH=7.1,PCO2=44,HCO3-=12,diagnosis (pH = 7.36 – 7.44• PCO2 = 36-44 mmhg• HCO3 = 22-26 mEq/L)
1-metabolic acidosis
2-respiratory alkalosis
3-partially compensated metabolic acidosis
4-respiratory acidosis

Q57)If the diameter of alveoli is reduced to half, resistance becomes
1-1/4th
2-1/16
3-4th
4-16th
5-1/8th

Q(58):Right shift of Hb dissociation curve is caused by decrease in
1-terperature
2-2.3-DPG
3-partial pressure of CO2
4-pH

Q(59)Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers from which ganglion supply minor salivry glands
a.Otic ganglion
b.Pteregopalatine ganglion
c.Ciliary ganglion
d.Sub_mandibular ganglion

Q60.Right border of heart is formed by
a.Right atrium
b.Right ventricle
c.Left atrium
d.Left ventricle

Q61.Superior venacava,inferior venacava,coronal sinus opens in to
a.Right ventricle
b.Right atrium
c.Left ventricle
d.Left atrium

Q 62 Hypertrophy indicates
A} Increase in size of cell
B} Increase in no. of cell
C} Decrease in no. of cell
D} Decrease in size of cell

Q 63 If the whole movement of Abduction of arm is lost the likely damage is in the Brachial Plexus
A} Upper trunk + Posterior cord
B} Upper trunk + Medial cord
C} Lower trunk + Posterior cord
D} Lower trunk + Medial cord

Q64 Increase in Light Chain Immunoglobulins Is the characteristic feature of
A} Endocrine type Amyloidosis
B} Hereditary Amyloidosis
C} Localized type Amyloidosis
D} Reactive Amyloidosis
E} Systemic type Amyloidosis

Q 65 Chemotaxis is caused by
A} C5a
B} C5b
C} Lymphokines
D} Leucotriene B3
E} Opsonins

Q66-All of following are findings of Horner syndrome except ?
A-Ptosis
B-Exopthalmas
C-Enopthalmas
D-Anyydrosis

Q67: Otic ganglion lies under:
A foramen ovale
B foramen spinsum
C: Maxillary nerve
D stylomastoid foramen

Q68 skin over prominence of cheek is supplied by:
A Zygomaticofacial
B Zygomaticofacial
C Auriculotemporal
D Infra trochlear

Q69: Rh agglutinin
A: is present on the surface of RBc
B: is present in Rh+ve blood group
C: is produced  in Rh –ve mother when she conceives as Rh +ve baby
D: Rh –ve individual has D antigen

Q70: Highest contents of triglycerides in
a Chylomcron remanents
b HDL
c LDL
d IDL
e VLDL

Q 71 Present in slow wave sleep
A Ach
B GABA
C Aspartate
D serotonin

Q72: Dental lamina is active up to
A 1 year
B 2 year
C 4 year
D 5 year

Q 73: First appearance of tooth formation occurs in
A: 6th week IU
B: 2nd week IU
C: 5th week IU
D: 4th Month IU

Q74: young female developed acute renal failure after postpartum hemorrhage. Which part of kidney is most likely damaged
1. proximal convoluted tubule
2. loop of henle
3.collecting tubules
4. distal convulated tubules

Q 75Main causative organism of gas gangrene is

  1. B.anthrax
  2. Clostridium tetani
  3. Cl.deficile
  4. Cl.perfringens

Q 76. Causative organism of whooping cough is

  1. Bordetella pertussis
  2. Bordetella parapertussis
  3. Bordetella bronchi septic
  4. None of these

Q77: E.coli produce which type of toxins?

  1. Exotoxins
  2. Endotoxins
  3. Leucocidin
  4. Both a and b

Q78: Peptide linkages are formed in between

  1. Nucleotides
  2. Amino acids
  3. Glucose molecules
  4. Sucrose

Q79. The nucleic acid of polio viruses is

  1. DNA
  2. RNA – (+) type
  3. t-RNA d. m-RNA

Q80. Rabies virus is

  1. Nake RNA virus
  2. Naked DNA virus
  3. Enveloped RNA virus
  4. Enveloped DNA virus

Q81. Example for DNA virus:

  1. Polio virus
  2. Adeno virus
  3. Echo virus
  4. Poty virus

Q82. In genetic engineering breaks in DNA are formed by enzymes known as

  1. Restriction enzymes
  2. Ligases
  3. Nucleases
  4. Hydralases

Q83: Most common benign tumor occurring in oral cavity:
A. papilloma
B. adenoma
C. fibroma
d. hemangioma
E. lipoma

Q84:Which is inappropriate regarding dentinogenesis imperfecta?
A. Opalcent amber discoloration
B. Teeth prone to caries
C. Pulp obliteration with round short roots on radiograph
D. Affects dentin only

Q85: Most common site of thyroglossal cyst is
A.suprahyoid
B.infrahyoid
C.hyoid
D.just lateral to hyoid

Q 86: Patients comes with deviation of tongue to
right side. Decreased sense of touch and
vibrations, the artery commonly involved in brain
is:
Option (a) :PICA
Option (b) :AICA
Option (c) :Anterior Spinal
Option (d) :Posterior Cerebral
Option (e) :Superior Cerebral Artery

Q87: Quartz in dental porcelain acts as
A . Binder
B: frit
C: opacifier
D: Strengthener

Q88 : During the casting of noble metal alloys, the mold should be held at the burn out temperature for at least

  1. 15 minutes
  2. 60 minutes
  3. 3 hours
  4. 6 hours

Q89  Detoxification of drug occur in

  1. A) Mitochondria
  2. B) SER
  3. C) RER

Q 90: Labetalol

  1. A) Beta blocker
  2. B) Alpha blockr
  3. C) Alpha plus Beta blocker

Q 91: Hemartoma is?

  1. A) Totally benign
  2. B) Metastatic
  3. C) Neoplastic
  4. D) Capsular
  5. E) Same as cholestoma

Q92: In general the hygroscopic expansion of gypsum investments will be higher if they contain

1: coarser silica particles and alpha hemihydrate

  1. liner silica particles and beta hemi hydrate
  2. coarser silica particles and beta hemihydrates
  3. finer silica particles and alpha hemihydrates

 

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